I have been considering for some time now whether there really is such a thing as an acquired taste. On the face of it, it seems clear that there must be; one might think beer is bitter and harsh, yet, as the palate becomes accustomed to it, the bitterness becomes pleasurable and desired. It might also be said, however, that certain flavors are naturally opposed to the palate as a whole (or even to an individual palate) and the "acquiring" of a taste towards that flavor could simply be the removal or neutralization of specific taste buds. I'll leave y'all with those positions to puzzle over.
The reason this interests me (besides the pursuit of knowledge) is that it seems it would change the way we understand and argue about flavor and taste. If the former position is correct, there would be no "absolute" or "true method" to drinking, cooking, and winemaking.